1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(A) Short circuit
(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy
2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
(A) Technological
theory
(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects
theory
(D) Information
theory
3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(A) Karan Johar (B)
Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle (D)
Gulzar
4. Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish (B)
secure (C) decode (D) change
5. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as
(A) sparks (B) green
dots
(C) snow (D) rain
drops
6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
(A) noise (B)
audience
(C) criticality (D)
feedback7. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of ` 7, ` 8,
` 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19 (B) 20
(C) 23 (D) 29
8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is
the code word for the word RESPONSE ?
(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM
(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM
9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, .... is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series ?
(A) 31 (B) 32
(C) 33 (D) 35
10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ...........by choosing one of the following option given :
(A) TS (B) ST
(C) RS (D) SR
11. A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(C) 5 km (D) 6 km
12.
One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written ?
(A) 32 (B) 36
(C) 40 (D) 38
13. “If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength.” The argument put
above may be called as
(A) Analogical (B)
Deductive
(C) Statistical (D)
Causal
14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(A) The conclusion is
claimed to follow from its premises.
(B) The conclusion is
based on causal relation.
(C) The conclusion
conclusively follows from its premises.
(D) The conclusion is
based on observation and experiment.
15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but can not both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called
(A) contradictory
(B) contrary
(C) subcontrary
(D) subaltern
16.
Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
Premises :
(a) All dogs are
mammals.
(b) No cats are dogs.
Conclusions :
(i) No cats are
mammals.
(ii) Some cats are
mammals.
(iii) No dogs are
cats.
(iv) No dogs are
non-mammals.
Codes :
(A) (i) only (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians. p, q, r, s ... represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.
Codes :
(A) q and s only
(B) s only
(C) s and r only
(D) p, q and s only
Read
the following table carefully. Based uponthis table answer questions from 18 to 22 :
Net Area under Irrigation by sources in acountry (Thousand Hectares)
Year Government canals Private canals Tanks Tube wells & other wells Other sources Total
1997-98 17117 211 2593 32090 3102 55173
1998-99 17093 212 2792 33988 3326 57411
1999-00 16842 194 2535 34623 2915 57109
2000-01 15748 203 2449 33796 2880 55076
2001-02 15031 209 2179 34906 4347 56672
2002-03 13863 206 1802 34250 3657 53778
2003-04 14444 206 1908 35779 4281 56618
2004-05 14696 206 1727 34785 7453 58867
2005-06 15268 207 2034 35372 7314 60196
18. Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tanks
(D) Other sources
19. Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A) Government canals
(B) Tanks
(C) Tube wells and
other wells
(D) Other sources
20. In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99 (B)
2000-01
(C) 2003-04 (D)
2005-06
21. Identify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
(A) Government canals
(B) Private canals
(C) Tube wells and
other wells
(D) Other sources
22. In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99 (B)
2000-01
(C) 2002-03 (D)
2004-05
23. The acronym FTP stands for
(A) File Transfer
Protocol
(B) Fast Transfer
Protocol
(C) File Tracking
Protocol
(D) File Transfer
Procedure
24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG (B) GIF
(C) BMP (D) GUI
25. The first web browser is
(A) Internet Explorer
(B) Netscape
(C) World Wide Web
(D) Firefox
26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM (B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM (D) TCP
27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three ?
(A) MAC address
(B) Hardware address
(C) Physical address
(D) IP address
28. Identify the IP address from the following :
(A) 300 ⋅ 215 ⋅ 317 ⋅ 3
(B) 302 ⋅ 215@ 417 ⋅ 5
(C) 202 ⋅ 50 ⋅ 20 ⋅ 148
(D) 202 – 50 – 20 –
148
29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 × 106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A) 54 million metric
tons
(B) 540 million
metric tons
(C) 5400 million
metric tons
(D) 2400 million
metric tons
30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times ?
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Los Angeles
(D) Beijing
31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A) run-off urban
areas
(B) run-off from
agricultural forms
(C) sewage effluents
(D) industrial
effluents
32. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
(A) eruption of large
amount of material
(B) strong winds
(C) strong water
waves
(D) strong winds and
water waves
33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by
(A) 1.5 °C to 2 °C
(B) 2.0 °C to 3.5 °C
(C) 0.5 °C to 1.0 °C
(D) 0.25 °C to 0.5 °C
34. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
(A) Environment
(B) Water Resources
(C) Home Affairs
(D) Defence
35. Match List – I and List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
a. Flood 1. Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
b. Drought 2. Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth
c. Earthquake 3. A vent through which molted substances come out
d. Volcano 4. Excess rain and uneven distribution of water
Codes :
a b c d
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
36. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere ?
(A)
Chlorofluorocarbon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Methane
(D) Nitrous oxide
37.
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
i. Rajasthan receives
the highest solar radiation in the country.
ii. India has the
fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii. The maximum
amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
iv. The primary source
of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes :
(A) i and ii (B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii (D) i
and iv
38. Who among the following is the de facto executive head of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Chairman
(B) Deputy Chairman
(C) Minister of State
for Planning
(D) Member Secretary
39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Residuary Powers
40. Which of the following are Central Universities ?
1. Pondicherry
University
2. Vishwa Bharati
3. H.N.B. Garhwal
University
4. Kurukshetra
University
Select the correct
answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1,
2 and 4
41. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and
(ii).Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will
discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes :
(A) Only argument (i) is strong.
(B) Only argument
(ii) is strong.
(C) Both the
arguments are strong.
(D) Neither of the
arguments is strong.
42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ?
(A) Assam University
(B) Delhi University
(C) Hyderabad
University
(D) Pondicherry
University
43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ?
1. Central University
is established under an Act of Parliament.
2. The President of
India acts as the visitor of the University.
3. The President has
the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the
Board of Management of the University.
4. The President
occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct
answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1,
2, 3 and 4
44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A) Students asking
questions
(B) Maximum
attendance of the students
(C) Pin drop silence
in the classroom
(D) Students taking
notes
45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A) Lecture
(B) Discussion
(C) Demonstration
(D) Narration
46. Dyslexia is associated with
(A) mental disorder
(B) behavioural
disorder
(C) reading disorder
(D) writing disorder
47. The e-content generation for undergraduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(A) INFLIBNET
(B) Consortium for
Educational Communication
(C) National
Knowledge Commission
(D) Indira Gandhi
National Open University
48. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A) effective
(B) cognitive
(C) affective
(D) selective
49. Who
among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A) Peter Haggett
(B) Von Thunen
(C) Thomas Kuhn
(D) John K. Wright
50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A) the appendix
(B) a separate
chapter
(C) the concluding
chapter
(D) the text itself
51. A thesis statement is
(A) an observation
(B) a fact
(C) an assertion
(D) a discussion
52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A) positive paradigm
(B) critical paradigm
(C) natural paradigm
(D) interpretative
paradigm
53. Which one of the following is a non probability sampling ?
(A) Simple random
(B) Purposive
(C) Systematic
(D) Stratified
54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.
(A) Placement (B)
Diagnostic
(C) Formative (D)
Summative
55. The research stream of immediate application is
(A) Conceptual
research
(B) Action research
(C) Fundamental
research
(D) Empirical
research
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 56 to 60 :
Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle
of the individual and from
that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of
peoples or groups enjoying a common
system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian
‘State’s’ special feature is the
peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social
groups of various historical
provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical,
economic, and political sense, without
ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of
thinking, or even in language. Modern
Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in
relation to the regime of the family, upon
the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban
is worn, for this may identify the
litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as
participants in its traditional law,
though their ancestors left the region three or four
centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’
above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a
conflict between the individual and the
State, atleast before foreign governments became
established, just as there was no concept of
state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian
‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make
a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all
religions. These blessed aspects of India’s
famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious
groups that the exceptions prove the
rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors
to the West Coast of India in the
sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this
and other ways gave rise, at one
remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia.
There is little about modern India
that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence
upon the inculcation of norms, and the
absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of
human or natural resources, are two very
different features which link the realities of India and her
tradition with the essence of all
Utopians.
56. Which of the following is a special feature of the
Indian State ?
(A) Peaceful
co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B) Peaceful
co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C) Social
integration of all groups
(D) Cultural
assimilation of all social groups.
57. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight
(A) Antagonistic
relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
(B) Absence of
conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C) The concept of
state sovereignty.
(D) Dependence on
religion.
58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian
‘Secularism’ ?
(A) No discrimination
on religious considerations
(B) Total
indifference to religion
(C) No space for
social identity
(D) Disregard for
social law
59. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was
inspired by
(A) Indian tradition
of religious tolerance.
(B) Persecution of
religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C) Social inequality
in India.
(D) European
perception of Indian State.
60. What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of
Utopian State (B) Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to
traditional values (D) Absence of Bigotry
Answer key for W
1
|
D
|
11
|
C
|
21
|
A
|
31
|
D
|
41
|
A
|
51
|
C
|
2
|
D
|
12
|
A
|
22
|
C
|
32
|
A
|
42
|
B
|
52
|
D
|
3
|
D
|
13
|
A
|
23
|
A
|
33
|
A
|
43
|
C
|
53
|
B
|
4
|
C
|
14
|
A
|
24
|
D
|
34
|
C
|
44
|
A
|
54
|
C
|
5
|
C
|
15
|
C
|
25
|
C
|
35
|
A
|
45
|
B
|
55
|
B
|
6
|
A
|
16
|
D
|
26
|
B
|
36
|
C
|
46
|
C
|
56
|
B
|
7
|
A
|
17
|
B
|
27
|
D
|
37
|
B
|
47
|
A
|
57
|
B
|
8
|
C
|
18
|
C
|
28
|
C
|
38
|
B
|
48
|
A
|
58
|
A
|
9
|
C
|
19
|
D
|
29
|
D
|
39
|
C
|
49
|
C
|
59
|
A
|
10
|
A
|
20
|
D
|
30
|
C
|
40
|
A
|
50
|
D
|
60
|
D
|
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